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p=1 ise (pvq)^p' ? ne olur cevaplayınız

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RockMasterrans

(pvp')^(pvq)
  1 ^ pvq = pvq böyle çözdüm .

Cherylrans

p gördüğümüz yere 1 yazalım

(1∨q)∧1'

≡1∧0

≡0

1'≡0 dır.

Kolay gelsin.

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